Home Political Science MCQs NTA NET Political Science MCQs (Part-5)

NTA NET Political Science MCQs (Part-5)

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1. Who described democracy as the “tyranny of the majority”?
(A) J. Rousseau (B) De Tocqueville
(C) John Dunning (D) James Madison

Ans. B & D
2. Which of the following is not written by Marx?
(A) German Ideology (B) Communist Manifesto
(C) Paris Manuscripts (D) Poverty of Utopia

Ans.  D

3. Who defined justice as treating equals equally and unequals unequally?
(A) J.S.Mill (B) Aristotle
(C) T.H.Green (D) Bentham

Ans.  B
4. The concept of ‘total revolution’ was advocated by:
(A) Raj Naraian (B) JayaPrakash Narayan
(C) M.N. Roy (D) Mahatma Gandhi

Ans.  B

5. Karl Deutsch was an important advocate of:
(A) Decision making theory (B) Systems theory
C) Communication theory D) Input-Output analysis

Ans.  C
6. Who made the following statement: “The only weapon of the satyagrahi is God”
A) Ram Manohar Lohia B) Motilal Nehru
C) Mahatma Gandhi D) V. D. Sarvarkar

Ans.  C
7. Rawls theory of justice is perceived as being ‘deontological’ because:
A) It is concerned with the substantive outcomes only
B) It is concerned only with the procedural rules and not the social outcomes
C) It is concerned with social rules, procedural outcomes rather than substantive outcomes
D) It is concerned only with the social rules and not the procedural outcomes

Ans.  C

8. The phrase ‘Credo of Relevance’ is associated with:
A) The Behavioural Revolution
B) The Chinese Revolution
C) The Post-Behavioural Revolution
D) The Russian Revolution

Ans.  C

9. Which political thinker made the following statement: The sovereign is “that person or assemblage of persons to whose will a whole political community is supposed to be in disposition to pay obedience and that in preference to the will of
any other person”.
A) Jeremy Bentham B) J.S. Mill
C) Leon Duguit D) M.P.Follett

Ans.  A

10. Which are the three natural rights specified by John Locke:
A) Life, equality and liberty B) Life, liberty and justice
C) Life, liberty and estates D) Life, equality and property

Ans.  C

11. The term Socialism was first used by:
A) Karl Kautsky B) Engels
C) Bernstein D) Robert Owen

Ans.  D

12. J.J.Rousseau in his ‘Discourse on the Origin of Inequality’ (1755) makes a distinction between which two types of inequalities:
A) Unnatural inequality and unconventional inequality
B) Unnatural inequality and nonconventional inequality
C) Natural inequality and conventional inequality
D) Natural inequality and nonconventional inequality

Ans.  C

13. Which among the following statements is not an important feature of ‘Utilitarianism’?
A) The goodness or badness of human action should be judged by the yardstick of utility
B) Human actions are motivated by considerations of pleasure and pain
C) It does not create conditions in which the happiness of the individual cannot be harmonised with the happiness of the majority
D) The formula of the ‘greatest happiness of the greatest number’

Ans.  C

14. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) In 1948 M.N.Roy started the Progressive Party and presented the thesis of a party based democracy
B) In 1948 M.N.Roy dissolved the Radical Democratic Party and presented a thesis of a party less democracy
C) In 1948 M.N.Roy started the Radical Democratic Party and presented a thesis of a party based democracy
D) In 1948 M.N.Roy replaced the Radical Democratic Party with the Progressive Party and presented a thesis of a party based democracy

Ans.  B

15. Which one of the following books was written by Plato?
A) The Prince B) Leviathan
C) Politics D) The Republic

Ans.  D

16. In his writing Antonio Gramsci attempted to:
A) Reject the political, ideological and cultural dimensions of the class struggle
B) Restore the voluntarist side of Marxist theory
C) Reject the voluntarist side of Marxist theory
D) Reject ideas, consciousness and human subjectivity

Ans.  B

17. According to which political thinker ‘life is not merely living, but living well”?
A) Socrates

B) Plato

C) St. Augustine

D) Aristotle

Ans.  D

18. Which of the following statements regarding Jeremy Bentham’s views on rights is correct?
A) He upheld the doctrine of natural rights
B) Rejected the doctrine of natural rights
C) Rejected the theory of legal rights
D) He contended that rights are not the creatures of law

Ans.  B

19. Which of the following statements about the ‘State’ reflects T.H.Green’s views?
A) The ‘State’ is not a product of human consciousness
B) The ‘State’ is not limited from within
C) The ‘State’ is a product of human consciousness
D) The ‘State is not limited from without

Ans.  C

20. Which political thinker wrote the famous book Essay on Liberty?
A) T.H.Green B) J.S.Mill
C) John Austin D) James Mill

Ans.  B
21. A pressure group is distinct from a political party in as much as it does not directly
A) Contest elections
B) Finance a candidate
C) Propagate a policy
D) Resort to mobilization of opinion

Ans.  A

22. The simple majority system is also referred to as:
A) Majoritarian system
B) Plurality system
C) List system
D) Single transferable vote system

Ans.  B
23. When the basis of representation is done according to ‘occupational occupation’ it is referred to as:
A) Territorial representation B) Limited vote system
C) Functional representation D) The cumulative vote system

Ans.  C

24. Which of the following features make the US federalism different from the Indian federal system?
i. The States in the USA have their own constitutions
ii. There is a double judicial system in India
iii. The US Constitution can be amended with the consent of three-fourths of
the States
iv. The US Constitution stipulates the powers of the Centre and States but remains silent about the residuary powers
Codes:
A) i and iii B) ii and iv
C) i, ii and iii D) i, ii and iv

Ans.  C

25. Which of the following is not an essential feature of a Federal Government?
A) There shall be a dual government one at the Central and the other at the
State level
B) The powers of both the Central and State governments is clearly defined in
a written constitution
C) There shall be a strong central government to exercise residuary powers
D) There shall be an impartial and independent Federal Court to adjudicate between the two governments

Ans.  C

26. Which one of the following combination of statements with regard to the American Constitution is right?
i. The States in the US have separate Constitutions.
ii. Residuary powers are granted to the States.
iii. There is dual citizenship in the US
iv. The Federal Government has the power to appoint the Governors.
Codes
A) i,ii and iii B) i,iii and iv
C) ii,iii and iv D) i and iv

Ans.  A

27. Who was the President of U S A that failed to admit his country in the League of Nations?
A) Franklin D. Roosevelt
B) Woodrow Wilson
C) Theodore Roosevelt
D) Eisenhower

Ans.  B
28. The British parliamentary system is also referred to as:
A) The Westminster model B) The Collegiate model
C) The Bundestag model D) The London model

Ans.  A
29. In the USA the filibuster is a method used by –
A) The Congress to pressurize the President
B) The President to prevent the introduction of a Bill in the Congress
C) Member of the Senate to obstruct the passage of a Bill
D) Judiciary to prevent Congress from passing a Bill

Ans.  C

30. The United States legislature represents a:
A) Unicameral system B) Bicameral system
C) Noncameral system D) Multicameral system

Ans.  B
31. The process of converting ‘demands into general policy alternatives’ is called:
A) Interest articulation B) Rule-Making
C) Interest Aggregation D) Rule-Application

Ans.  C

32. Which of the following thinkers argues that ‘the role of the elite does not suggest any imperfection of democracy’?
A) Giovanni Sartori B) Theodor Adorno
C) Louis Althusser D) Herbert Marcuse

Ans.  A

33. Which of the following is not a part of the ‘tool kit of good governance’?
A) Transparency and right to information
B) Speedy public grievance redressal system
C) Disempowering local bodies in rural areas
D) Citizen’s charter

Ans.  C

34. The highest decision making body of the Chinese Communist Party is:
A) The National People’s Congress
B) People’s Liberation Army
C) Politburo
D) Central Committee

Ans.  C

35. The Theory on Interest Groups owes a lot to the work of:
A) William Riker B) Herbert Simon
C) Karl Deutsch D) David Truman

Ans.  D

36. Which one of the following is not a constitutional prerogative of the President of India?
A) Returning a Legislative Bill for reconsideration
B) Returning a Financial Bill for reconsideration.
C) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
D) Summoning the Rajya Sabha

Ans.  B

37. Who described the Indian Constitution as ‘quasi-federal’?
A) K.C. Wheare B) Ivor Jennings
C) Herman Finer D) David Truman

Ans.  A

38. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
A) Shri N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
B) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D) Shri Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Ans.  C

39. Parliament is empowered to get all the following removed except:
A) Comptroller and Auditor-General
B) Supreme Court judges
C) Attorney-General
D) Chief Election Commissioner

Ans.  C

40. The Legislative Council in a State can be created or disbanded by:
A) Parliament alone
B) State Legislative Assembly alone
C) Parliament on the recommendation of the State Legislative Assembly
D) The President on the recommendation of the State Governor

Ans.  C

41. In the Kesavanand Bharati case it was held that:
A) Parliament could not amend fundamental rights
B) The decision of the Golaknath case was upheld
C) 24th amendment was held valid and Parliament could amend fundamental
rights
D) 12th amendment was held valid

Ans.  C

42. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court declare that the Parliament had no right to amend the basic structure of the Indian Constitution?
A) Gopalan Case
B) Keshavnand Bharathi Case
C) Golaknath Vs the State of Punjab case
D) Minerva Mills case

Ans.  B

43. Which of the subjects is not contained in the Union List?
A) Citizenship B) Fisheries
C) Posts & Telegraphs D) Extradition

Ans.  B

44. Which one of the following is not a function of the Prime Minister of India?
A) The Prime Minister promulgates ordinances when the Parliament is not in session
B) It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all the decisions of the Cabinet meetings
C) The Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the Cabinet
D) The Prime Minister advises the President on the allocation of portfolios to the members of the Cabinet

Ans.  A

45. In India political parties are given recognition by:
A) Law Commission B) President
C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha D) Election Commission

Ans.  D

46. Which one of the following statements concerning the President of India is wrong?
A) The President nominates 12 members to the Council of State and two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha
B) No Bill can become a law unless the President signs it
C) The President has the power to summon, prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Council of States
D) The President declares war and concludes treaties or makes peace, subject to the provisions of the Constitution

Ans.  C

47. The Directive Principles of State Policy are included in
A) Part III of the Constitution B) Part V of the Constitution
C) Part IV of the Constitution D) Part VI of the Constitution

Ans.  C

48. The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the
A) Fourteenth Amendment B) Twenty-Fifth Amendment
C) Forty-Fourth Amendment D) Forty- Third Amendment

Ans.  C

49. Which of the following is listed among the Directive Principles of the Constitution?
I. Uniform civil code
II. Equal pay for equal work.
III. Small family norm
IV. Education through mother tongue at the primary level
Codes
A) I, II and III B) I and II
C) II and III D) I, II,III and IV

Ans.  B
50. Who discharges the duty of the office of the Governor if it falls vacant due to the death or resignation of the Governor?
A) An acting Governor immediately appointed by the the President
B) The Chief Justice of India
C) The senior-most judge of the Supreme Court
D) The Chief Justice of the High Court

Ans.  D

51. Which of the following comes under the Right to Equality?
I. Non-discrimination by the State on grounds of religion or race
II. Equal protection of the laws
III. Equal pay for equal work
IV. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the State
Codes
A) I, II, and III B) I, II, III and IV
C) I and IV D) I, II and IV

Ans.  D

52. Which of the following is not a limitation on the powers of the Rajya Sabha?
A) A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
B) The members of the Rajya Sabha participate in the election of the President
C) The Rajya Sabha has no power to introduce a No Confidence Motion
D) The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a money bill. It cannot reject or amend any money bill

Ans.  B

53. The members of the Estimates Committee are from:
A) The Rajya Sabha only
B) The Lok Sabha only
C) Both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha
D) No Member of Parliament is a member of the Committee

Ans.  B

54. Arrange the following in chronological order:
i. Lucknow pact
ii. Home Rule League
iii. Montagu-Chelmsford reforms
iv. Outbreak of the First World War
Codes
A) iv,iii,ii,i B) ii,iv,i,iii
C) iv,i,ii,iii D) iv,ii,i,iii

Ans.  D

55. In India the power of Judicial review is enjoyed by:
A) The High Courts only
B) The Supreme Court only
C) The Supreme Court and the High Courts
D) The District and Sessions Courts

Ans.  C

56. In the S.R.Bommai Vs Union of India (1994) case, the Supreme Court ruled that:
A) The subjective satisfaction of the executive’s reports which warrants President’s rule is subject to judicial review
B) The subjective satisfaction of the executive’s reports which warrants President’s rule is not subject to judicial review
C) The subjective satisfaction of the executive’s reports which warrants President’s rule is occasionally subject to judicial review
D) The subjective satisfaction of the executive’s reports which warrants President’s rule is subject to a casting vote

Ans.  A

57. Which of the following views does not represent the Nehruvian concept of a ‘secular state’?
A) Freedom of religion or irreligion for all
B) The State will honour all faiths equally, but discriminate in favour of some
C) The State will honour all faiths equally and discriminate against none
D) The State shall not have a ‘State religion’

Ans.  B

58. The Anti-Defection Law was passed by the Indian Parliament during the Prime Ministership of:
A) Indira Gandhi B) Morarji Desai
C) Rajiv Gandhi D) V.P.Singh

Ans.  C

59. The Right to Information Act was passed in the year:
A) 2006 B) 2003
C) 2004 D) 2005

Ans.  D

60. The first Speaker of the Lok Sabha was:
A) C.D.Deshmukh B) M.A. Ayyangar
C) G.V. Mavalankar D) Hiren Mukherjee

Ans.  C

61. The continuing relevance of classical realism in International Relations theory finds expression in its recent reformulation known as:
A) Neo Idealism B) Neo Marxism
C) Idealism D) Neo Realism

Ans.  D

62. The concept of ‘dependent development’ has been promoted as part of the :
A) The Dependency theory B) The Systems theory
C) The Long-Cycle theory D) Hegemonic Stability theory

Ans.  A

63. The United Nations Charter was signed at the:
A) Yalta Conference B) San Francisco Conference
C) Dumbarton Oaks Conference D) Potsdam Conference

Ans.  B

64. The First SAARC summit conference was in:
A) New Delhi B) Kathmandu
C) Colombo D) Dacca

Ans.  D

65. The phrase ‘father of modern international law’ is associated with:
A) David Easton B) Hugo Grotius
C) John Locke D) Jeremy Bentham

Ans.  B
66. The headquarters of the World Trade Organisation is located in:
A) Geneva B) Madrid
C) London D) Paris

Ans.  A

67. The Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT):
A) Has been signed and ratified by the US
B) Has not been signed by the US
C) Has been signed but not ratified by the US Congress
D) Has not been signed nor ratified by the US

Ans.  C

68. The Simla Agreement was signed between;
A) Ayub Khan and Lal Bahadur Shastri
B) Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
C) Indira Gandhi and Yahya Khan
D) Indira Gandhi and Ayub Khan

Ans.  B

69. The Headquarters of SAARC is located in:
A) Colombo B) Kathmandu
C) Islamabad D) New Delhi

Ans.  B

70. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
A) Afghanistan B) Myanmar
C) Maldives D) Pakistan

Ans.  B

71. The UN Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) which was held in Rio-de-Jenario in June 1992, is also referred to as:
A) The Earth Summit B) The Planet Summit
C) The Millennium Summit D) The Global Summit

Ans.  A

72. The Kyoto Protocol (treaty) was signed in the year?
A) 1997 B) 1996
C) 1998 D) 1995

Ans.  A

73. The Limited Test Ban Treaty was signed in the year:
A) 1963 B) 1953
C) 1973 D) 1964

Ans.  A

74. The first Secretary General of the United Nations Organisation was:
A) Dag Hammarskjold B) U.Thant
C) Trygve Lie D) Kurt Waldheim

Ans.  C

75. Who made the following statement with regard to the concept of ‘balance-ofpower’? “The trouble with balance-of-power is not that it has no meaning, but that it has too many meanings”.
A) Hans Morgenthau B) Inis Claude
C) Nicholas Spykman D) S.B Fay

Ans.  B

76. Chapter VII, Articles 39 to 51 in the UN Charter contains elaborate provisions relating to:
A) Pacific Settlement of international disputes
B) Disarmament and Arms Control
C) Collective Security
D) Trusteeship System

Ans.  A

77. In the Game theory, a ‘zero sum situation’ means:
A) A gain for one side
B) That a gain for one is a loss for the other
C) A loss for one side
D) Neither a gain nor a loss for either

Ans.  B

78. The term ‘shuttle diplomacy’ was used popularly with reference to:
A) Chester Bowles B) George Kennan
C) Kenneth Galbraith D) Henry Kissinger

Ans.  D

79. Which Prime Minister popularised India’s ‘Look East Policy’?
A) Indira Gandhi B) Narasimha Rao
C) V.P.Singh D) Deve Gowda

Ans.  B

80. Realism explains international relations in terms of:
A) Rationality B) Protectionism
C) Population D) Power

Ans.  D

81. The classification of authority as ‘Traditional’, ‘Rational-Legal’ and ‘Charismatic’ authority was given by:
A) Gaetano Mosca B) Robert Michels
C) Max Weber D) Fred W. Riggs

Ans.  C

82. Who said that “power is the production of intended effects?”
A) Bertrand Russell B) Robert Dahl
C) Henry Kissinger D) David Truman

Ans.  A

83. The process by which political cultures are formed, maintained and changed is referred to as:
A) Political Modernisation B) Political Socialisation
C) Political Communication D) Political Alienation

Ans.  B

84. Which of the following is not a formal communication structure?
A) Political input structures B) Traditional social structures
C) Political output structures D) Mass media

Ans.  B

85. Which form of ‘Authority’ is based ‘on a rule’?
A) De jure authority B) Charismatic authority
C) De facto authority D) Informal authority

Ans.  A

86. Which of the following statements is not true about ‘political power’?
A) Power is a relational phenomenon.
B) Power exists in an ensemble of relationships.
C) Power exists in a vacuum
D) Power does not exist in a vacuum

Ans.  C

87. Who referred to Political Modernisation as “a multi-faceted process involving change in all areas of human thought and activity”:
A) Edward Shils B) Samuel Huntington
C) Benjamin Schwartz D) David Easton

Ans.  B

88. The three main characteristics of Political Development that Lucian Pye offers are:
A) Capacity, Mobilisation, Power
B) Equality, Participation, Authority
C) Differentiation, Participation, Mobilisation
D) Equality, Capacity, Differentiation

Ans.  D

89. Gabriel Almond presents a tripartite division of political culture, viz.,
A) Participant, Continuous and Subject political culture
B) Adaptive, Subject and Participant political culture
C) Parochial, Subject and Participant political culture
D) Parochial, Adaptive and Continuous political culture

Ans.  C

90. The process by which an individual inculcates values, norms and orientations as well as gets acquainted with the political system, is referred to as:
A) Political Socialisation B) Political Modernisation
C) Political Development D) Political Communication

Ans.  A

91. Which Elite theorist made the following statement, “History is the graveyard of aristocracy’?
A) Robert Michaels B) Vilfredo Pareto
C) C. Wright Mills D) G. Mosca

Ans.  B

92. The famous ‘Iron Law of Oligarchy’ was propounded by:
A) Thornstein Veblen B) C. Wright Mills
C) Robert Michaels D) James Burnham

Ans.  C

93. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good hypothesis?
A) It should have an empirical reference
B) It should be related to the available techniques
C) It should not be related to a body of knowledge
D) It should be related to a body of knowledge

Ans.  C

94. An ‘Intervening variable’ links between:
A) A dependent and intervening variable
B) An independent and a dependent variable
C) One dependent variable and another
D) One independent variable and another

Ans.  B

95. A ‘unstructured question’ means:
A) The questions are structured in advance
B) The questions are not structured in advance
C) The questions are not scientifically prepared and imparted
D) The questions are focused only on the structures of the political system and not its functioning

Ans.  B

96. A list of questions which is to be filled up by the enumerator, who is specially appointed for the purpose is referred to as;
A) An Interview B) A check list
C) A hypothesis D) A Schedule

Ans.  D

97. A systematic explanation of the phenomenon is referred to as:
A) A theory B) A fact
C) A construct D) A paradigm

Ans.  A

98. In the realm of research, a trait or characteristic which changes from one situation to another is called :
A) A hypothesis B) A paradigm
C) A variable D) A schedule

Ans.  C

99. Which of the following statements of L.T.Hobhouse is correct?
A) He advocated the use of property as an instrument of power in utter disregard of social needs
B) He advocated the use of property for personal needs
C) He never criticised the use of property as an instrument of power in utter disregard of social needs
D) He criticised the use of property as an instrument of power in utter disregard of social needs

Ans.  D

100. Which is the famous book written by R.M. MacIver?
A) The Modern State
B) A Grammar of Politics
C) Elements of Social Justice
D) A Theory of Justice

Ans.  A

101. The guiding principles of ‘Scientific Management’ were provided by:
A) Frederic Taylor B) F.W. Riggs
C) Alfred Diamant D) L.D.White

Ans.  A

102. Which approach particularly explores the interaction between Public Administration and the external environment?
A) The Developmental Approach
B) The Decision-Making Approach
C) The Marxist approach
D) The Ecological Approach

Ans.  D

103. The Public Choice approach opposes:
A) Popular participation in administration
B) Single centred administrative power
C) Diverse democratic decision making centres
D) Institutional pluralism

Ans.  B

104. Which one of the following features does not constitute the essence of Weberian ‘bureaucracy’?
A) Division of Labour
B) Impersonal nature
C) Loosely defined authority hierarchy
D) Career tracks for employees

Ans.  C

105. The ‘Father of the Human Relations Movement’ in Public Administration was:
A) Elton Mayo B) Oliver Sheldon
C) M.P.Follet D) Mac Farland

Ans.  A

106. The need for constitutional sanction to village panchayats was first felt by:
A) G.V.K Rao Committee B) L.M.Singhvi Committee
C) Balwantray Committee D) Asoka Mehta Committee

Ans.  B

107. The type of ‘training’ that is imparted to the candidates after their entry into the public service is termed:
A) Pre-Entry Training B) Induction Training
C) Orientation Training D) In-Service Training

Ans.  D

108. Which of the following is not a goal of the ‘New Public Administration Movement’?
A) Relevance B) Formalism
C) Social Equity D) Change

Ans.  B

109. The Planning Commission in India was established in March 1950 by:
A) A resolution of the Government of India
B) A judicial order of the Supreme Court
C) A legislation passed by the Parliament
D) A Referendum held in India

Ans.  A

110. Who among the following is not a member of the National Development Council:
A) The Prime Minister
B) The Chief Justice of India
C) The Chief Ministers of all States
D) Members of the Planning Commission

Ans.  B

111. Part IX-A to the Constitution of India was added by:
A) The 74th Constitution Amendment Act
B) The 71st Constitution Amendment Act
C) The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act
D) The 70th Constitution Amendment Act

Ans.  A

112. Who provided the first comprehensive explanation of ‘organisation’ from the systems point of view:
A) D. Waldo B) Chester Barnard
C) Albert Lepawsky D) Felix Nigro

Ans.  B

113. Who made the following statement: “Public Administration is the art and science of management as applied to the affairs of the State”
A) Luther Gulick B) L.D. White
C) D. Waldo D) Woodrow Wilson

Ans.  C

114. If the entry of the selected and appointed candidate into the service is initially on a temporary basis, then the candidate is said to be:
A) On Probation B) On Orientation
C) On Certification D) On Confirmation

Ans.  C
115. Which of the following statements pertaining to the The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act of 1992 is correct?
A) It contends that it will consider a constituional status for Panchayat Raj institutions in future
B) It does not provide a constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj institutions.
C) It undid the constitutionsl status that was provided to Panchayat Raj institutions earlier
D) It provides a constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj institutions

Ans.  D

116 Deleted

117. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly:
A) Did not defend the All India Services
B) Was in favour of continuing with the Indian Civil Service
C) Was in favour of the All India Services
D) Did not have any opinion on the All India Services

Ans.  C

118. The office of Chief Secretary in colonial India was created in 1799 by:
A) Lord Hardindge B) Lord Wellesly
C) Lord Dufferin D) Lord Dalhousie

Ans.  B

119. Panchayat Raj was first introduced in India in October 1959 in:
A) Karnataka B) Kerala
C) Rajasthan D) Tamil Nadu

Ans.  C

120. The qualifications for the Chairman and other members of the Finance Commission of India
A) Are determined by the President
B) Have been laid down in the Constitution
C) Are determined by the Parliament
D) Are determined by the President in consultation with the Prime Minister

Ans.  C

 

 

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